2014 Latest Pass4sure&Lead2pass Microsoft MB2-700 Exam Questions (61-70)

QUESTION 61
In Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013, a queue that contains some old queue items is no longer needed. You need to remove the queue by using the least amount of effort. What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)

A.    Delete the queue without removing the queue items.
B.    Deactivate the queue without removing the queue items.
C.    Remove the queue items, and then delete the queue.
D.    Remove the queue items, and then deactivate the queue.

Answer: CB

QUESTION 62
When working with Service Management goals in Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013, when are the Actual and In Progress goal fields recalculated? (Choose all that apply.)

A.    automatically
B.    when the goal record is saved
C.    as scheduled on the service calendar
D.    when a user clicks the Recalculate button

Answer: AD

QUESTION 63
In Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013, how can you display the Service Activity Volume report? (Choose all that apply.)

A.    Run the report from the Reports list.
B.    Run the report from the Activities list.
C.    Run the report from the Service Calendar.
D.    Run the report from the Run Report menu of the Cases list.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 64
What role do keywords play in the Knowledge Base?

A.    Keywords are only used to manage the Knowledge Base.
B.    Keywords relate similar cases to each other
C.    Keywords are used to search for articles.
D.    Keywords define the subject tree.

Answer: C

QUESTION 65
You review a Knowledge Base article.
On the Article tab of the ribbon, which option is NOT in the Action group?

A.    Submit
B.    Unpublish
C.    Approve
D.    Reject
E.    Publish

Answer: E

QUESTION 66
Which two record types require a reference to the subject tree? Each answer presents part of the solution. (Choose TWO)

A.    Sales Attachments
B.    Case Resolution Activity
C.    Cases
D.    Sales Literature
E.    Knowledge Base articles

Answer: DE

QUESTION 67
A company tracks competitors by using Connection records instead of using the native Competitors feature in Microsoft Dynamics CRM. The company assigns a Connection with the Connection Roles of Related Opportunity and Competitor between the Opportunity and the Account, which represents the competitor. Accounts have a flag which designates the record as a competitor.
Which statement is true?

A.    The Connection record is used to populate the options in the Competitor field on the Opportunity’s resolution activity for Lost Opportunities.
B.    A Connection record is created between the Opportunity and the Account.
C.    The Competitor/Win Loss report uses the Connection record to indicate how well the organization is doing versus a competitor
D.    The Connection record is used to populate the options in the Competitor field on the Opportunity’s resolution activity for Won Opportunities.

Answer: B

QUESTION 68
In which two circumstances does the autosave process save changes to Lead records?(Choose TWO)

A.    When a user exits a changed record
B.    Every 30 seconds
C.    When a user creates the record
D.    Every 120 seconds
E.    Every time a user moves the focus out of an edited field

Answer: AB

QUESTION 69
Which field is required to create a new Opportunity record?

A.    Originating Lead
B.    Customer
C.    Topic
D.    Contact
E.    Account

Answer: E

QUESTION 70
When you qualify a lead, which two records will also be created?(Choose TWO)

A.    Account
B.    Contract
C.    Campaign Response
D.    Opportunity
E.    Contact

Answer: DE

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2014 Latest Pass4sure&Lead2pass Microsoft MB2-700 Exam Questions (51-60)

QUESTION 51
You have a Contract that has a status value of Invoiced.
One of the contract lines references an incorrect product.
You need to correct the contract line.
What should you do?

A.    Open the contract line and replace the value in the Product field with the correct product.
B.    On the invoiced contract, add a new contract line that has the correct product. Cancel the contract line that has the incorrect product.
C.    Copy the invoiced contract. In the newly created draft contract, update the Product field for the affected contract line. Activate the new contract and then cancel the invoiced contract.
D.    Delete the contract line. Add a new contract line that has the correct product.

Answer: C

QUESTION 52
You have a Contract that has a status value of Active.
One of the contract lines references an incorrect product.
You need to correct the contract line.
What should you do?

A.    Open the contract line and replace the value in the Product field with the correct product.
B.    Delete the contract line. Add a new contract line that has the correct product.
C.    On the active contract, add a new contract line that has the correct product. Cancel the contract line that has the incorrect product referenced.
D.    Copy the active contract, In the newly created draft contract, update the Product field for the affected contract line. Activate the new contract and then cancel the invoiced contract.

Answer: C

QUESTION 53
A user views the Service area of the navigation pane in Microsoft Dynamics CRM. What is displayed when the user clicks the down arrow on the Cases button?

A.    A list of recently viewed cases
B.    The most recently viewed case record
C.    The Quick Create form for cases
D.    the New Case form

Answer: A

QUESTION 54
When can you resolve, cancel, or delete a case that has activities associated with it?

A.    You can resolve cases when all activities associated to the case are completed. You can cancel or delete cases at any time.
B.    You can resolve or cancel cases only when the associated activities are closed. You can delete cases at any time.
C.    You can resolve, cancel, or delete cases at any time.
D.    You can resolve, cancel, or delete cases only when all activities associated with the case are completed.

Answer: B

QUESTION 55
Which condition must be true before you can close a case?

A.    The case must NOT be marked as high priority.
B.    All knowledge base articles that the case references must be active.
C.    All activities that are related to the case must be in a closed state.
D.    All activity parties for activities that are related to the case must be active customers.

Answer: B

QUESTION 56
You review the Similar Cases section for a case by using the Default Case form. Which cases does Microsoft Dynamics CRM show?

A.    cases with the same product
B.    cases with similar case descriptions
C.    cases with the same customer
D.    cases with the same subject

Answer: D

QUESTION 57
Which three entities are associated with cases by default? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.(Choose Three)

A.    Appointments
B.    Quotes
C.    Products
D.    Opportunities
E.    Knowledge Base Articles

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 58
Which Service entity has Quick Create forms?

A.    Service Appointments
B.    Articles
C.    Cases
D.    Goals

Answer: C

QUESTION 59
What are two ways to find content in Knowledge Base articles?(Choose TWO)

A.    search subjects
B.    browse articles
C.    search by using keywords
D.    search by using templates
E.    search for common articles

Answer: BC

QUESTION 60
Which of the following actions can you perform with articles? (Choose all that apply.)

A.    attach an article to a case
B.    add an article to a product
C.    add an article to a campaign
D.    email an article to a contact
E.    add a connection to an article

Answer: AD

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2014 Latest 100% Pass Guaranteed EMC E20-002 Practice Tests (151-160)

QUESTION 151
Which is true about virtual machine (VM) fault tolerance mechanism?

A.    Both primary and secondary VMs have separate virtual disks
B.    Only primary VM can access the shared virtual disk
C.    Only secondary VM can access the shared virtual disk
D.    Both primary and secondary VMs share same virtual disk

Answer: D

QUESTION 152
What occurs to the guest OS configuration when a virtual machine is reverted from its snapshot?

A.    Current guest OS configurations are preserved
B.    Guest OS configurations are reverted to the point-in-time of snapshot creation
C.    Reference VM Settings are used to configure guest OS
D.    Settings are lost and need manual configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 153
What correctly describes the state of virtual disks of a virtual machine after an array-to-array migration is performed?

A.    Virtual disks are deleted from the primary site after they are copied to the secondary site
B.    Virtual disks are deleted from both primary and secondary site
C.    Virtual disks are maintained at both primary and secondary sites
D.    Virtual disks are only maintained at the primary site

Answer: A

QUESTION 154
Which is used as a master copy to create and provision a new virtual machine (VM)?

A.    VM template
B.    VM Clone
C.    VM backup
D.    VM snapshot

Answer: A

QUESTION 155
Which resource may be hired in Infrastructure-as-a-Service model?

A.    Storage space
B.    Middleware
C.    Operating System
D.    Database

Answer: A

QUESTION 156
Which is an example of platform-as-a-service?

A.    EMC Atmos online
B.    EMC Mozy
C.    Google App development environment
D.    Salesforce.com

Answer: C

QUESTION 157
Which is an example of Infrastructure-as-a-Service offering?

A.    EMC Mozy
B.    Salesforce.com
C.    Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
D.    Google App Engine

Answer: C

QUESTION 158
Which is an example of Software-as-a-Service offering?

A.    Microsoft Azure
B.    Google App Engine
C.    Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
D.    EMC Mozy

Answer: D

QUESTION 159
Which is the Cloud deployment model that will be a suitable choice for a group of organizations with shared concerns?

A.    Community Cloud
B.    Public Cloud
C.    Private Cloud
D.    Hybrid Cloud

Answer: A

QUESTION 160
Which is a component of virtual infrastructure in Cloud?

A.    Storage array
B.    Network identity pool
C.    Service catalog
D.    Management software

Answer: B

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2014 Latest 100% Pass Guaranteed EMC E20-002 Practice Tests (131-140)

QUESTION 131
Which parameter determines the maximum amount of resource that a virtual machine can consume?

A.    Limit
B.    Share
C.    Priority
D.    Reservation

Answer: A

QUESTION 132
Which technology enables a physical CPU to appear as two or more logical CPUs?

A.    Ballooning
B.    Multi-core
C.    Hyper-threading
D.    Load balancing

Answer: C

QUESTION 133
Which Virtual Machine File System feature ensures that a virtual machine is not powered on by multiple compute systems at the same time?

A.    On-power lock
B.    On-compute lock
C.    On-disk lock
D.    On-VM lock

Answer: C

QUESTION 134
Which is the primary function of hypervisor

A.    Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine
B.    Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine
C.    Allows authorization to virtual machine resources to users
D.    Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a physical machine

Answer: D

QUESTION 135
Which method enables a virtual machine to directly access a LUN on a storage array?

A.    File system locking
B.    Raw device mapping
C.    Virtual machine clustering
D.    Virtual storage mapping

Answer: B

QUESTION 136
What are the three major building blocks for automated storage tiering?

A.    Storage group, RAID group, storage type
B.    Storage group, RAID group, group policy
C.    Storage type, storage group, policies
D.    RAID type, storage type, policies

Answer: C

QUESTION 137
What is used to create secondary cache in cache tiering mechanism?

A.    FC Drive
B.    Solid state drive
C.    DRAM
D.    SATA drive

Answer: B

QUESTION 138
When is thin LUN preferred over traditional LUN?

A.    Security is more important
B.    High availability is more important
C.    Performance is predominant
D.    Storage space efficiency is paramount

Answer: D

QUESTION 139
What defines the minimum amount of physical storage allocated at a time to a thin LUN from a thin Pool?

A.    Thin LUN capacity
B.    Thin LUN set size
C.    Thin LUN extent
D.    Thin LUN factor

Answer: C

QUESTION 140
Which is a benefit of network virtualization?

A.    Increased resource acquisition
B.    Enhanced storm control
C.    Better policy control
D.    Improved manageability

Answer: D

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2014 Latest 100% Pass Guaranteed EMC E20-002 Practice Tests (121-130)

QUESTION 121
Which tool helps to create Cloud services?

A.    Service planning tool
B.    Service creation tool
C.    Service management tool
D.    Service monitoring tool

Answer: C

QUESTION 122
Which technique enables making physical resources appear as logical resources?

A.    Virtualization
B.    Utility computing
C.    Self provisioning
D.    Grid computing

Answer: A

QUESTION 123
Which is an essential characteristic of the Cloud?

A.    Resource planning
B.    Resource utilization
C.    Resource pooling
D.    Resource reservation

Answer: C

QUESTION 124
Which is a key step in building a Cloud Infrastructure?

A.    Automate resource classification
B.    Automate service provisioning
C.    Centralize services and resources
D.    Customize services and resources

Answer: B

QUESTION 125
What is the benefit of a RAID?

A.    Improves storage systems performance
B.    Prevents disk failure in a RAID Set
C.    Ensures data integrity in a RAID set
D.    Simplifies distribution of parity across mirrored disks

Answer: A

QUESTION 126
Which statement is true about FC SAN?

A.    Enables object level access to data
B.    Supports a maximum of 256 nodes
C.    Provides higher scalability as compared to DAS
D.    Has limited ability to share resources

Answer: C

QUESTION 127
Which key requirement of a data center refers to the ability of IT to support new business initiatives dynamically?

A.    Capacity
B.    Manageability
C.    Availability
D.    Flexibility

Answer: D

QUESTION 128
Which are the key parameters that determine the performance and availability of a RAID set?

A.    Number of drives in a RAID set and the capacity of each drive
B.    Number of RAID controllers and type of RAID implementation
C.    Number of drives is a RAID set and type of RAID implementation
D.    Number of drives in a RAID set and RAID level

Answer: D

QUESTION 129
Which key requirement of a data center is violated when an authorized storage administrator is not able to remotely login to a server in the data center?

A.    Security
B.    Flexibility
C.    Scalability
D.    Availability

Answer: D

QUESTION 130
What is stored in a virtual machine log file?

A.    Virtual machine BIOS information
B.    Information of virtual machine’s activities
C.    Information of virtual machine’s configuration
D.    Virtal machine’s RAM contents

Answer: B

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2014 Latest 100% Pass Guaranteed EMC E20-002 Practice Tests (111-120)

QUESTION 111
An organization is planning to migrate its operations to the Cloud. There are several Cloud vendors that can provide the required services.
Which is the primary factor that the organization should consider when selecting the vendor?

A.    Ease of adding or removing services from the vendor
B.    Identity of the vendor’s existing clients
C.    Range of value added services the vendor provides
D.    The current market share of the vendor

Answer: A

QUESTION 112
Which step of the “Journey to the Cloud” allows pooling of resources?

A.    Virtualizing the IT environment
B.    Automating resource management processes
C.    Delivering IT-as-a-Service
D.    Policy-based provisioning

Answer: C

QUESTION 113
Which is a benefit of a virtualized environment?

A.    Transparent Provider-to-Provider migrations
B.    Optimized utilization of IT resources
C.    Simplification of regulatory compliance
D.    Reduced OPEX (Operational Expenditure)

Answer: B

QUESTION 114
An organization must meet government requirements prohibiting export of data outside its territory. Which Cloud deployment model would be most appropriate for this organization?

A.    On-premise Private Cloud
B.    External Private Cloud
C.    Public Cloud
D.    Hybrid Cloud

Answer: C

QUESTION 115
Which technology provides user-level authentication and file locking functionality?

A.    NAS
B.    FCIP
C.    iSCSI
D.    FCoE

Answer: B

QUESTION 116
Which storage platform supports file, block, and object level access?

A.    Unified
B.    Converged
C.    Virtual
D.    SOAP

Answer: C

QUESTION 117
Which provide file-level access to storage on a NAS device?

A.    CIFS and NFS
B.    CIFS and FCIP
C.    iSCSI and FCoE
D.    SATA and SCSI

Answer: D

QUESTION 118
Which sequence of events correctly represents a backup operation?

image
Build List and Reorder:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Answer:

QUESTION 119
Which sequence of events correctly represents a backup operation?
Select and Place:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Answer:
Explanation/Reference:
1. Backup server instructs storage node to load media backup
2. Backup client sends data to be backed up.
3. Backup data from storage node is sent to backup device.
4. Backup server updates catalog and record status

QUESTION 120
What is a key benefit of virtualization technology?

A.    Flexible metering
B.    Capacity planning
C.    Rapid elasticity
D.    Policy compliance

Answer: C

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2014 Latest 100% Pass Guaranteed EMC E20-002 Practice Tests (101-110)

QUESTION 101
What is an advantage of adopting Cloud Open Standards?

A.    It enables mission critical applications to be run on the Cloud
B.    It prevents vendor lock-in issues
C.    It increases security compliance
D.    It improves performance

Answer: B

QUESTION 102
What action should be part of a security and compliance assessment prior to migrating business operations to the Cloud?

A.    Selecting the geographic location of data storage
B.    Reviewing disaster recovery options
C.    Understanding the vendor lock-in period
D.    Negotiating the service charge rate

Answer: A

QUESTION 103
During which phase of the Cloud migration process should business application compatibility with Cloud infrastructure be evaluated?

A.    Technical Assessment
B.    Security and Compliance Assessment
C.    Proof of Concept
D.    Optimization

Answer: A

QUESTION 104
During which phase of the Cloud migration process should the usage pattern of an application be determined?

A.    Proof of Concept
B.    Assessment
C.    Optimization
D.    Migration

Answer: C

QUESTION 105
What are the three key Quality of Service (QoS) parameters that need to be assessed by an organization before moving operations to the Cloud?

A.    Performance, Availability, and Security
B.    RPO, RTO, and Security
C.    Service Charge Rate, RTO, and Performance
D.    Performance, Availability, and Service Duration

Answer: A

QUESTION 106
Which trade-off needs to be evaluated to determine how Cloud computing fits into an organization’s overall business strategy?

A.    Risk versus convenience
B.    Security versus penalty
C.    Risk versus compliance
D.    Security versus compliance

Answer: A

QUESTION 107
Which Cloud deployment model(s) is considered suitable for most start-up organizations?

A.    Private Cloud only
B.    Hybrid Cloud only
C.    Public Cloud
D.    Both Private and Hybrid Cloud

Answer: C

QUESTION 108
Which Cloud deployment model(s) is considered most suitable for Tier 1 applications for the small to medium sized business (SMB) segment?

A.    Private Cloud
B.    Public Cloud only
C.    Hybrid Cloud only
D.    Both Public and Hybrid Cloud

Answer: A

QUESTION 109
Which type(s) of application involves higher risk when moving to the Cloud?

A.    Proprietary and mission critical
B.    Backup and testing
C.    Proprietary but not mission critical
D.    Non-proprietary and non-mission critical

Answer: A

QUESTION 110
Which document defines the quality and reliability of Cloud services?

A.    Regulatory Compliance Document
B.    Service Charge Rate Specification
C.    Service Level Agreement
D.    Service Contract Agreement

Answer: C

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2014 Latest 100% Pass Guaranteed EMC E20-002 Practice Tests (91-100)

QUESTION 91
What is a major reason for auditing?

A.    To ensure that only authorized individuals can access the system
B.    To evaluate the effectiveness of security enforcement controls and processes
C.    To measure and charge for computer usage
D.    To ensure that individuals are provided with privileges appropriate for their role

Answer: B

QUESTION 92
Which is a recommended method for virtual machine (VM) hardening?

A.    Use a directory service for authentication
B.    Use VM only for proprietary applications
C.    Use a VM snapshot to provision a new VM
D.    Disable VM access to the management console

Answer: A

QUESTION 93
A Cloud service provider decides to close its business due to legal litigation. Which Governance, Risk and Compliance (GRC) document would safeguard the interests of its clients?

A.    Termination Agreement
B.    Service Implementation Guide
C.    Business Continuity Agreement
D.    Service Level Agreement

Answer: A

QUESTION 94
Which Governance, Risk and Compliance (GRC) aspect may limit adoption of public Clouds for applications handling sensitive data?

A.    SAN Security Regulations
B.    Information Flow Regulations
C.    Inadequate anti-virus protection
D.    Lack of robust data encryption standards

Answer: B

QUESTION 95
Which security process defines the scope of the access rights for a resource?

A.    Authorization
B.    Authentication
C.    Encryption
D.    Auditing

Answer: A

QUESTION 96
From which level should a Distributed Denial of Service attack be prevented?

A.    Network
B.    Access control
C.    Perimeter
D.    Compute

Answer: A

QUESTION 97
Consider the following actions:
1. Exhausting resources such as CPU cycles or network bandwidth
2. Exploiting weaknesses in communication protocols
3. Hijacking of user identities
4. Intercepting communications traffic Which of these actions are involved in a Denial of Service (DoS) attack?

A.    2 and 3
B.    2 and 4
C.    1 and 3
D.    1 and 2

Answer: D

QUESTION 98
What statement related to a Virtual Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is true?

A.    A virtual DMZ can support multiple trust zones.
B.    DMZ virtual machines should be in separate sub-networks.
C.    Virtual DMZ subnets do not use a firewall to protect traffic.
D.    Trusted nodes in the DMZ are not accessible from outside networks.

Answer: A

QUESTION 99
Which security mechanism removes the need for services to provide their own identity system and allows users to consolidate their digital identities?

A.    OpenID
B.    Federated Identity Management
C.    One-time passwords
D.    Shared LDAP directory

Answer: A

QUESTION 100
Review the following considerations:
1. A contingency plan for handling data in the Cloud
2. A process for migrating the data back into the organization or to another Cloud
3. Whether or not data can be moved over the network in a reasonable amount of time
4. Cost of transferring ownership of the infrastructure back to the client Which considerations should apply before terminating a Cloud service agreement?

A.    2 and 4 only
B.    1, 2, and 3
C.    2, 3, and 4
D.    1 and 4

Answer: B

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